That's my point also (mind you I didn't read this whole thread so I don't know where you stand on the issue). Whether you stand on one side of it or the other, I don't think anyone has a right to play "You're not really Christian if ..."
I have no problem with someone else feeling they cannot and will not go to a gay wedding due to how they feel about scripture. I do have a problem with someone implying another person's relationship with G*d is a "crap," that they need to study the Word, and read the Bible solely based on the fact that they do not agree with them.
My question is for those that constantly refer to the "sin of homosexuality". Now, as a Christian, I don't doubt the bible, but I must admit, I've always found it interesting that so many Christians remember that scripture in Leviticus and yet don't seem to remember these (nor follow them
). I just wanted to put this out. Not to judge others opinions, etc.
Well, what Christians needs to consider about Leviticus is the intention of the message, who it was written by and written for. I always question what other parts of Leviticus people do NOT follow and what parts of Leviticus they do given Moses was talking to the Jews and what was considered unclean for them. I also, consider if people are taking the Bible into its history and context or just want to read based on the 'tradition' of what different denominations of churches say?
You've provided several scriptures, which is great since they also relate to the same set-up as Romans - a scripture reference before in this thread. These scriptures in Leviticus apply to pagan ritual and sacrifices and several words within the passages allude to what was considered idolatry and unclean practices rather than homosexual as we know it today.
Take 20:13 as an example:
καὶ ὃς ἂν κοιμηθῇ μετὰ ἄρσενος κοίτην γυναικός βδ�*λυγμα ἐποίησαν ἀμφότεροι θανατούσθωσαν ἔνοχοί εἰσιν
The literal translation taking the the verb and direct object into consideration means do not sleep the sleeps of a woman with a man, do not lay the layings of a woman with a man. I was also told and have researched that many Jewish moralists, Greek and Hebrew linguists, and Biblical scholars for over a millennium have debated what exactly constitutes "sleeping the sleeps of a woman" and who is technically a "man" in the situation. Because of these debates, it is not clear that this is a direct reference to homosexual activity in the original text. This is where interpretation comes in and Hebrew theology, but I don't have time to get into that now.
Anyway, the English translation of the word abomination in Hebrew is tow'ebah (transliterated and probably I misspelled). Uncleanliness is one of the definitions of tow’ebah when excluding words that weren't in existence then. The Greek language makes a distinction between morality and ritual impurity. Those words are anomia and bdelugma,(spelling?) respectively. Anyone can look up these words with other scriptures as cross references.
In Lev. 18:12, the word bdelugma is used to illustrate the issue of ritual impurity rather than morality. Tow'ebah (again, transliterated) is used through out the Old Testament to refer to idolatry or something not expected as a life of a Jew- "ethnicity" wise- that would be unclean or impure for them.
For example, 2 Kings 16:3 reads:
וילך בדרך מלכי ישראל וגם את־ב�*ו העביר באש כתעבות הגוים אשר הוריש יהוה אתם ב�*י ישראל מפ�*י
Full KJV 2 Kings 16:3: But he walked in the way of the kings of Israel, yea, and made his son to pass through the fire, according to the abominations of the heathen, whom the LORD cast out from before the children of Israel.
And my script is messing up on LHCF, but I can direct anyone who wants to view the passage above w/o errors. Where tow'ebah is combined with hagoyim (both are transliterated again) to translate as uncleanness/impurity of the gentiles. The word idol is mistranslated in KJV as well, but I won’t go into that too right now because the point is that the meaning of these mistranslations were for the laws that preserves who the Jews were and how they were in disassociation (or should be) with pagan ritual and idolatry. Many Biblical scholars believe that this is reinstated in the 10 commandments.
So with that said, we can ask ourselves what specific act does tow'ebah refer to? Can it possibly denounce all 'homosexuals'?
As you see, I RARELY get into the Bible this deep on here. I mean only to encourage others to seek answers for themselves or at least spark curiosity about the Bible. There's a bigger picture G*d's word provides and no one should be shunned for trying to study it and coming up with something that goes against popular denominational belief.
Ok. I think I'm done now.
eta: sorry, I forgot to disclaim about Moses. It's IF you believe that Moses wrote Leviticus and you believe Paul in his account of it.
With that said, the Bible does not reference same sex relationships as we know it today but people still interpret the Bible that way. It's not only a translation issue, but an interpretation issue when you get down to the examining the verb and direct object within the Hebrew and Greek. I would give you an example, but I'd probably be wasting my time. 
erplexed
