GV-NA-GI-TLV-GE-I
New Member
Okay, I'm having a problem with something.
It is often said that we are under the "new testament law" and that the laws in the Old Testament no longer apply.
For instance in Old Testament law...I was not allowed to eat shrimp or wear clothes made of mixed fabrics, etc.
There are a lot of laws in leviticus that the Israelites were called to follows.
Today if a christian wants to eat a pork chop they'll remind people that although the old testament prohibited it, we are no longer under the old testament law.
I've heard:
NOW here is my dilemma.
If you believe that we are not under old testament law and that old testament law was abolished:
How do I explain to homosexuals WHY being homosexual is STILL wrong since the command to refrain from it was discusssed in Leviticus which is an old testament book and we are under new testament law?
I need a direct answer as direct as possible, please.
In case the first post got jacked...here goes again...darn! But gentiles were never under Jewish law so the prohibition against eating pork didn't apply to them. First century christians were Jews and there developed a schism between them. In later times, gentiles entered the new Jewish sect of "christians" and things were changed. Noachide (how Noah worshipped) laws apply to gentiles.
Regarding homosexuality, it's not a sin to be a homosexual. It is a sin to commit sodomy between men. The desire and orientation remains in the person but acting it out is the sin.