Multiple Wives?

Aviah

Well-Known Member
What if, a man with many wives comes to Christ? The bible instructs us in Corinthians to stay with the spouse (presuming they are not saved) and let your life be an example to them to win them over (from what I understand) So does he have to keep all the wives? Likewise with a woman who is married to a man of many wives... Does he stay with the original one? Or all? I'm really curious on this, as some societies practice this and I would like to know what the impications for that marriage would be....
TIA!
 
What if, a man with many wives comes to Christ? The bible instructs us in Corinthians to stay with the spouse (presuming they are not saved) and let your life be an example to them to win them over (from what I understand) So does he have to keep all the wives? Likewise with a woman who is married to a man of many wives... Does he stay with the original one? Or all? I'm really curious on this, as some societies practice this and I would like to know what the implications for that marriage would be....
TIA!

deleted.....you may want to read this;http://www.ukapologetics.net/concubine.html ...it does puzzle me a bit. I'm sure there are many more sites on this subject.

Concubine:
in the Bible denotes a female conjugally united to a man, but in a relation inferior to that of a wife. Among the early Jews, from various causes, the difference between a wife and a concubine was less marked than it would be amongst us. The concubine was a wife of secondary rank. There are various laws recorded providing for their protection ( Exd 21:7; Deu 21:10-14), and setting limits to the relation they sustained to the household to which they belonged ( Gen 21:14; 25:6). They had no authority in the family, nor could they share in the household government.

The immediate cause of concubinage might be gathered from the conjugal histories of Abraham and Jacob ( Gen 16; 30). But in process of time the custom of concubinage degenerated, and laws were made to restrain and regulate it ( Exd 21:7-9).

Christianity has restored the sacred institution of marriage to its original character, and concubinage is ranked with the sins of fornication and adultery ( Mat 19:5-9; 1Cr 7:2).
 
I read that article, and it doesn't seem to wash well for obvious reasons. So why is it that men are allowed to (according to the article) and women are not if "in Christ there is neither male nor female"
 
What if, a man with many wives comes to Christ? The bible instructs us in Corinthians to stay with the spouse (presuming they are not saved) and let your life be an example to them to win them over (from what I understand) So does he have to keep all the wives? Likewise with a woman who is married to a man of many wives... Does he stay with the original one? Or all? I'm really curious on this, as some societies practice this and I would like to know what the impications for that marriage would be....
TIA!

In several cases/cultures where marriages are plural, the husband is the source of income for the women and children. If he leaves them, they are destitute. I really don't know what the right answer is.
 
deleted.....you may want to read this;http://www.ukapologetics.net/concubine.html ...it does puzzle me a bit. I'm sure there are many more sites on this subject.

Concubine:
in the Bible denotes a female conjugally united to a man, but in a relation inferior to that of a wife. Among the early Jews, from various causes, the difference between a wife and a concubine was less marked than it would be amongst us. The concubine was a wife of secondary rank. There are various laws recorded providing for their protection ( Exd 21:7; Deu 21:10-14), and setting limits to the relation they sustained to the household to which they belonged ( Gen 21:14; 25:6). They had no authority in the family, nor could they share in the household government.

The immediate cause of concubinage might be gathered from the conjugal histories of Abraham and Jacob ( Gen 16; 30). But in process of time the custom of concubinage degenerated, and laws were made to restrain and regulate it ( Exd 21:7-9).

Christianity has restored the sacred institution of marriage to its original character, and concubinage is ranked with the sins of fornication and adultery ( Mat 19:5-9; 1Cr 7:2).

Even the author made a distinction between wife and conubine. I don't think the two can be compared.

The difficulty is that the bible does not specifically rule out plural marriage. Anything the bible does not address becomes one man's opinion vs another.
 
Even the author made a distinction between wife and conubine. I don't think the two can be compared.

The difficulty is that the bible does not specifically rule out plural marriage. Anything the bible does not address becomes one man's opinion vs another.

yes it does have plural wives....what bible are you picking up chica? :look: just curious to know:look:

here's an example; read the whole thing if you like to understand this passage tho of why God said what he said...
[FONT=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]2 Samuel 12:1-14[/FONT][FONT=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica] 1 The Lord sent Nathan to David. When he came to him, he said, "There were two men in a certain town, one rich and the other poor. 2 The rich man had a very large number of sheep and cattle, 3 but the poor man had nothing except one little ewe lamb he had bought. He raised it, and it grew up with him and his children. It shared his food, drank from his cup and even slept in his arms. It was like a daughter to him. [/FONT]4 "Now a traveler came to the rich man, but the rich man refrained from taking one of his own sheep or cattle to prepare a meal for the traveler who had come to him. Instead, he took the ewe lamb that belonged to the poor man and prepared it for the one who had come to him." 5 David burned with anger against the man and said to Nathan, "As surely as the Lord lives, the man who did this deserves to die! 6 He must pay for that lamb four times over, because he did such a thing and had no pity." 7 Then Nathan said to David, "You are the man! This is what the Lord, the God of Israel, says: 'I anointed you king over Israel, and I delivered you from the hand of Saul. 8 I gave your master's house to you, and your master's wives into your arms. I gave you the house of Israel and Judah. And if all this had been too little, I would have given you even more. 9 Why did you despise the word of the Lord by doing what is evil in his eyes? You struck down Uriah the Hittite with the sword and took his wife to be your own. You killed him with the sword of the Ammonites. 10 Now, therefore, the sword will never depart from your house, because you despised me and took the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be your own.' 11 "This is what the Lord says: 'Out of your own household I am going to bring calamity upon you. Before your very eyes I will take your wives and give them to one who is close to you, and he will lie with your wives in broad daylight. 12 You did it in secret, but I will do this thing in broad daylight before all Israel.'" 13 Then David said to Nathan, "I have sinned against the Lord." Nathan replied, "The Lord has taken away your sin. You are not going to die. 14 But because by doing this you have made the enemies of the Lord show utter contempt, the son born to you will die."

I know. i was giving two references of multiple wives and concubines as well. concubines may not have the same privileges as a wife, but they are still well taken care of the same. :look::rolleyes:
 
Man last night I had to call my father in law up about this one! When you start talking about the bible...it get's him going:grin:, he loves these types of conversations...It was hard to hear since he was on route and his cell phone was going in and out...I wish I can get you to talk to him, he'll break it all the way down...trust me you and the bible will be open for business...:yep:
but still reaserching and reading;
....vivmaiko...you're on it girl...

but to add to it...since we can't call or email God and ask...we can only research and speculate why God allowed many things to happen w or w/o < consequence for any given reason...although, whether a sin or not Aviah, God sent his son to the cross, so any sin like...multiple wives....OR husbands are forgiven because of Jesus.

here's what I got online i hth:
(1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? The Bible does not specifically say why God allowed polygamy. The best anyone can do is “informed” speculation. There are a few key factors to consider. First, there has always been more women in the world than men. Current statistics show that approximately 50.5% of the world population are women, with men being 49.5%. Assuming the same percentages in ancient times, and multiplied by millions of people, there would be tens of thousands more women than men. Second, warfare in ancient times was especially brutal, with an incredibly high rate of fatalities. This would have resulted in an even greater percentage of women to men. Third, due to the patriarchal societies, it was nearly impossible for an unmarried woman to provide for herself. Women were often uneducated and untrained. Women relied on their fathers, brothers, and husbands for provision and protection. Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery. Fourth, the significant difference between the number of women and men would have left many, many women in an undesirable (to say the least) situation.

So, it seems that God allowed polygamy to protect and provide for the women who could not find a husband otherwise. A man would take multiple wives and serve as the provider and protector of all of them. While definitely not ideal, living in a polygamist household was far better than the alternatives: prostitution, slavery, starvation, etc. In addition to the protection / provision factor, polygamy enabled a much faster expansion of humanity, fulfilling God’s command to “be fruitful and multiply, fill the earth” (Genesis 9:7). Men are capable of impregnating multiple women in the same time period…causing humanity to grow much faster than if each man was only able to produce one child each year.

(2) How does God view polygamy today? Even while allowing polygamy, the Bible presents monogamy as the plan which conforms most closely to God’s ideal for marriage. The Bible says that God’s original intention was for one man to be married to only one woman, “For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife (not wives); and they shall become one flesh (not multiple fleshes)” (Genesis 2:24). While Genesis 2:24 is describing what marriage is, rather than how many people are involved, the consistent use of the singular should be noted. In Deuteronomy 17:14-20, God says that the kings were not supposed to multiply wives (or horses or gold). While this cannot be interpreted as a command that the kings must be monogamous, it can be understood as declaring the having multiple wives causes problems. This can be clearly seen in the life of Solomon (1 Kings 11:3-4).

In the New Testament, 1 Timothy 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 give “the husband of one wife” in a list of qualifications for spiritual leadership. There is some debate as to what specifically this qualification means. Please read - http://www.gotquestions.org/husband-one-wife.html. The phrase could literally be translated “a one-woman man.” Whether or not this phrase is referring exclusively to polygamy, in no sense can a polygamist be considered a “one-woman man.” While these qualifications are specifically for positions of spiritual leadership, they should apply equally to all Christians. Should not all Christians be “above reproach ... temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, not given to drunkenness, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money” (1 Timothy 3:2-4)? If we are called to be holy (1 Peter 1:16), and if these standards are holy for elders and deacons, then they are holy for all.

Ephesians 5:22-33, speaking of the relationship between husbands and wives, when referring to a husband (singular) always also refers to a wife (singular). “…for the husband is the head of the wife (singular) … He who loves his wife (singular) loves himself. For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife (singular), and the two will become one flesh … each one of you also must love his wife (singular) as he loves himself, and the wife (singular) must respect her husband (singular).” While a somewhat parallel passage, Colossians 3:18-19, refers to husbands and wives in the plural, it is clear that Paul is addressing all the husbands and wives among the Colossian believers, not stating that a husband might have multiple wives. In contrast, Ephesians 5:22-33 is specifically describing the marital relationship. If polygamy is allowable, the entire illustration of Christ’s relationship with His body (the church), and the husband-wife relationship, falls apart.

(3) Why did it change? It is not as much God disallowing something He previously allowed as it is God restoring marriage to His original intent. Even going back to Adam and Eve (not Eves), polygamy was not God’s original intent. God seems to have allowed polygamy to solve a problem, but it was God’s desire for the problem never to have occurred. In most modern societies, there is absolutely no need for polygamy. In most cultures today, women are able to provide for and protect themselves – removing the only “positive” aspect of polygamy. Further, most modern nations outlaw polygamy. According to Romans 13:1-7, we are to obey the laws that the government establishes. The only instance in which disobeying the law is permitted by Scripture is if the law contradicts God’s commands (Acts 5:29). Since God only allows for polygamy, and does not command it, a law prohibiting polygamy should be upheld.

Are there some instances in which the allowance for polygamy would still apply today? Perhaps…but it is unfathomable that there would be no other possible solution. Due to the “one flesh” aspect of marriage, the need for oneness and harmony in marriage, and the lack of any real need for polygamy, it is our firm belief that polygamy does not honor God and is not His design for marriage.

book:
Bible Answers for Almost All Your Questions
http://www.christianbook.com/Christian/Books/product?event=AFF&p=1011693&item_no=63241
 
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yes it does have plural wives....what bible are you picking up chica? :look: just curious to know:look:

here's an example; read the whole thing if you like to understand this passage tho of why God said what he said...
[FONT=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]2 Samuel 12:1-14[/FONT][FONT=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica] 1 The Lord sent Nathan to David. When he came to him, he said, "There were two men in a certain town, one rich and the other poor. 2 The rich man had a very large number of sheep and cattle, 3 but the poor man had nothing except one little ewe lamb he had bought. He raised it, and it grew up with him and his children. It shared his food, drank from his cup and even slept in his arms. It was like a daughter to him. [/FONT]4 "Now a traveler came to the rich man, but the rich man refrained from taking one of his own sheep or cattle to prepare a meal for the traveler who had come to him. Instead, he took the ewe lamb that belonged to the poor man and prepared it for the one who had come to him." 5 David burned with anger against the man and said to Nathan, "As surely as the Lord lives, the man who did this deserves to die! 6 He must pay for that lamb four times over, because he did such a thing and had no pity." 7 Then Nathan said to David, "You are the man! This is what the Lord, the God of Israel, says: 'I anointed you king over Israel, and I delivered you from the hand of Saul. 8 I gave your master's house to you, and your master's wives into your arms. I gave you the house of Israel and Judah. And if all this had been too little, I would have given you even more. 9 Why did you despise the word of the Lord by doing what is evil in his eyes? You struck down Uriah the Hittite with the sword and took his wife to be your own. You killed him with the sword of the Ammonites. 10 Now, therefore, the sword will never depart from your house, because you despised me and took the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be your own.' 11 "This is what the Lord says: 'Out of your own household I am going to bring calamity upon you. Before your very eyes I will take your wives and give them to one who is close to you, and he will lie with your wives in broad daylight. 12 You did it in secret, but I will do this thing in broad daylight before all Israel.'" 13 Then David said to Nathan, "I have sinned against the Lord." Nathan replied, "The Lord has taken away your sin. You are not going to die. 14 But because by doing this you have made the enemies of the Lord show utter contempt, the son born to you will die."

I know. i was giving two references of multiple wives and concubines as well. concubines may not have the same privileges as a wife, but they are still well taken care of the same. :look::rolleyes:

Perhaps you need to break it down for me, What are you trying to show? I do agree that plural wives existed.
 
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Man last night I had to call my father in law up about this one! When you start talking about the bible...it get's him going:grin:, he loves these types of conversations...It was hard to hear since he was on route and his cell phone was going in and out...I wish I can get you to talk to him, he'll break it all the way down...trust me you and the bible will be open for business...:yep:
but still reaserching and reading;
....vivmaiko...you're on it girl...

but to add to it...since we can't call or email God and ask...we can only research and speculate why God allowed many things to happen w or w/o < consequence for any given reason...although, whether a sin or not Aviah, God sent his son to the cross, so any sin like...multiple wives....OR husbands are forgiven because of Jesus.

here's what I got online i hth:
(1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? The Bible does not specifically say why God allowed polygamy. The best anyone can do is “informed” speculation. There are a few key factors to consider. First, there has always been more women in the world than men. Current statistics show that approximately 50.5% of the world population are women, with men being 49.5%. Assuming the same percentages in ancient times, and multiplied by millions of people, there would be tens of thousands more women than men. Second, warfare in ancient times was especially brutal, with an incredibly high rate of fatalities. This would have resulted in an even greater percentage of women to men. Third, due to the patriarchal societies, it was nearly impossible for an unmarried woman to provide for herself. Women were often uneducated and untrained. Women relied on their fathers, brothers, and husbands for provision and protection. Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery. Fourth, the significant difference between the number of women and men would have left many, many women in an undesirable (to say the least) situation.

So, it seems that God allowed polygamy to protect and provide for the women who could not find a husband otherwise. A man would take multiple wives and serve as the provider and protector of all of them. While definitely not ideal, living in a polygamist household was far better than the alternatives: prostitution, slavery, starvation, etc. In addition to the protection / provision factor, polygamy enabled a much faster expansion of humanity, fulfilling God’s command to “be fruitful and multiply, fill the earth” (Genesis 9:7). Men are capable of impregnating multiple women in the same time period…causing humanity to grow much faster than if each man was only able to produce one child each year.

(2) How does God view polygamy today? Even while allowing polygamy, the Bible presents monogamy as the plan which conforms most closely to God’s ideal for marriage. The Bible says that God’s original intention was for one man to be married to only one woman, “For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife (not wives); and they shall become one flesh (not multiple fleshes)” (Genesis 2:24). While Genesis 2:24 is describing what marriage is, rather than how many people are involved, the consistent use of the singular should be noted. In Deuteronomy 17:14-20, God says that the kings were not supposed to multiply wives (or horses or gold). While this cannot be interpreted as a command that the kings must be monogamous, it can be understood as declaring the having multiple wives causes problems. This can be clearly seen in the life of Solomon (1 Kings 11:3-4).

In the New Testament, 1 Timothy 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 give “the husband of one wife” in a list of qualifications for spiritual leadership. There is some debate as to what specifically this qualification means. Please read - http://www.gotquestions.org/husband-one-wife.html. The phrase could literally be translated “a one-woman man.” Whether or not this phrase is referring exclusively to polygamy, in no sense can a polygamist be considered a “one-woman man.” While these qualifications are specifically for positions of spiritual leadership, they should apply equally to all Christians. Should not all Christians be “above reproach ... temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, not given to drunkenness, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money” (1 Timothy 3:2-4)? If we are called to be holy (1 Peter 1:16), and if these standards are holy for elders and deacons, then they are holy for all.

Ephesians 5:22-33, speaking of the relationship between husbands and wives, when referring to a husband (singular) always also refers to a wife (singular). “…for the husband is the head of the wife (singular) … He who loves his wife (singular) loves himself. For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife (singular), and the two will become one flesh … each one of you also must love his wife (singular) as he loves himself, and the wife (singular) must respect her husband (singular).” While a somewhat parallel passage, Colossians 3:18-19, refers to husbands and wives in the plural, it is clear that Paul is addressing all the husbands and wives among the Colossian believers, not stating that a husband might have multiple wives. In contrast, Ephesians 5:22-33 is specifically describing the marital relationship. If polygamy is allowable, the entire illustration of Christ’s relationship with His body (the church), and the husband-wife relationship, falls apart.

(3) Why did it change? It is not as much God disallowing something He previously allowed as it is God restoring marriage to His original intent. Even going back to Adam and Eve (not Eves), polygamy was not God’s original intent. God seems to have allowed polygamy to solve a problem, but it was God’s desire for the problem never to have occurred. In most modern societies, there is absolutely no need for polygamy. In most cultures today, women are able to provide for and protect themselves – removing the only “positive” aspect of polygamy. Further, most modern nations outlaw polygamy. According to Romans 13:1-7, we are to obey the laws that the government establishes. The only instance in which disobeying the law is permitted by Scripture is if the law contradicts God’s commands (Acts 5:29). Since God only allows for polygamy, and does not command it, a law prohibiting polygamy should be upheld.

Are there some instances in which the allowance for polygamy would still apply today? Perhaps…but it is unfathomable that there would be no other possible solution. Due to the “one flesh” aspect of marriage, the need for oneness and harmony in marriage, and the lack of any real need for polygamy, it is our firm belief that polygamy does not honor God and is not His design for marriage.

book:
Bible Answers for Almost All Your Questions
http://www.christianbook.com/Christian/Books/product?event=AFF&p=1011693&item_no=63241

Thanks for the references, I will do some futher research and study. Thanks!
 
...what bible are you picking up chica? :look: just curious to know:look:



What is the purpose of the snide comment?

We are all students. None of is a master of anything in the Bible and we are all learning from each other.

My Bible is the same as yours. Just as you are a student, so am I. :yep:
 
...what bible are you picking up chica? :look: just curious to know:look:



What is the purpose of the snide comment?

We are all students. None of is a master of anything in the Bible and we are all learning from each other.

My Bible is the same as yours. Just as you are a student, so am I. :yep:

i'm sorry, not trying to come off like that...i was just asking since you said the bible does say wives...plural.
some bibles are different...which was something I've learned last year...I'm not too sure but catholic, christian, jehovah, mormon...I was just curious...don't read into it like that...i'm sorry:sad:...tucking my tail under and hiding under the table
 
i'm sorry, not trying to come off like that...i was just asking since you said the bible does say wives...plural.
some bibles are different...which was something I've learned last year...I'm not too sure but catholic, christian, jehovah, mormon...I was just curious...don't read into it like that...i'm sorry:sad:...tucking my tail under and hiding under the table

No problem...The internet is sometimes not too good at expressing what we mean.

Thanks!
 
Man last night I had to call my father in law up about this one! When you start talking about the bible...it get's him going:grin:, he loves these types of conversations...It was hard to hear since he was on route and his cell phone was going in and out...I wish I can get you to talk to him, he'll break it all the way down...trust me you and the bible will be open for business...:yep:
but still reaserching and reading;
....vivmaiko...you're on it girl...

but to add to it...since we can't call or email God and ask...we can only research and speculate why God allowed many things to happen w or w/o < consequence for any given reason...although, whether a sin or not Aviah, God sent his son to the cross, so any sin like...multiple wives....OR husbands are forgiven because of Jesus.

here's what I got online i hth:
(1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? The Bible does not specifically say why God allowed polygamy. The best anyone can do is “informed” speculation. There are a few key factors to consider. First, there has always been more women in the world than men. Current statistics show that approximately 50.5% of the world population are women, with men being 49.5%. Assuming the same percentages in ancient times, and multiplied by millions of people, there would be tens of thousands more women than men. Second, warfare in ancient times was especially brutal, with an incredibly high rate of fatalities. This would have resulted in an even greater percentage of women to men. Third, due to the patriarchal societies, it was nearly impossible for an unmarried woman to provide for herself. Women were often uneducated and untrained. Women relied on their fathers, brothers, and husbands for provision and protection. Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery. Fourth, the significant difference between the number of women and men would have left many, many women in an undesirable (to say the least) situation.

So, it seems that God allowed polygamy to protect and provide for the women who could not find a husband otherwise. A man would take multiple wives and serve as the provider and protector of all of them. While definitely not ideal, living in a polygamist household was far better than the alternatives: prostitution, slavery, starvation, etc. In addition to the protection / provision factor, polygamy enabled a much faster expansion of humanity, fulfilling God’s command to “be fruitful and multiply, fill the earth” (Genesis 9:7). Men are capable of impregnating multiple women in the same time period…causing humanity to grow much faster than if each man was only able to produce one child each year.

(2) How does God view polygamy today? Even while allowing polygamy, the Bible presents monogamy as the plan which conforms most closely to God’s ideal for marriage. The Bible says that God’s original intention was for one man to be married to only one woman, “For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife (not wives); and they shall become one flesh (not multiple fleshes)” (Genesis 2:24). While Genesis 2:24 is describing what marriage is, rather than how many people are involved, the consistent use of the singular should be noted. In Deuteronomy 17:14-20, God says that the kings were not supposed to multiply wives (or horses or gold). While this cannot be interpreted as a command that the kings must be monogamous, it can be understood as declaring the having multiple wives causes problems. This can be clearly seen in the life of Solomon (1 Kings 11:3-4).

In the New Testament, 1 Timothy 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 give “the husband of one wife” in a list of qualifications for spiritual leadership. There is some debate as to what specifically this qualification means. Please read - http://www.gotquestions.org/husband-one-wife.html. The phrase could literally be translated “a one-woman man.” Whether or not this phrase is referring exclusively to polygamy, in no sense can a polygamist be considered a “one-woman man.” While these qualifications are specifically for positions of spiritual leadership, they should apply equally to all Christians. Should not all Christians be “above reproach ... temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, not given to drunkenness, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money” (1 Timothy 3:2-4)? If we are called to be holy (1 Peter 1:16), and if these standards are holy for elders and deacons, then they are holy for all.

Ephesians 5:22-33, speaking of the relationship between husbands and wives, when referring to a husband (singular) always also refers to a wife (singular). “…for the husband is the head of the wife (singular) … He who loves his wife (singular) loves himself. For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife (singular), and the two will become one flesh … each one of you also must love his wife (singular) as he loves himself, and the wife (singular) must respect her husband (singular).” While a somewhat parallel passage, Colossians 3:18-19, refers to husbands and wives in the plural, it is clear that Paul is addressing all the husbands and wives among the Colossian believers, not stating that a husband might have multiple wives. In contrast, Ephesians 5:22-33 is specifically describing the marital relationship. If polygamy is allowable, the entire illustration of Christ’s relationship with His body (the church), and the husband-wife relationship, falls apart.

(3) Why did it change? It is not as much God disallowing something He previously allowed as it is God restoring marriage to His original intent. Even going back to Adam and Eve (not Eves), polygamy was not God’s original intent. God seems to have allowed polygamy to solve a problem, but it was God’s desire for the problem never to have occurred. In most modern societies, there is absolutely no need for polygamy. In most cultures today, women are able to provide for and protect themselves – removing the only “positive” aspect of polygamy. Further, most modern nations outlaw polygamy. According to Romans 13:1-7, we are to obey the laws that the government establishes. The only instance in which disobeying the law is permitted by Scripture is if the law contradicts God’s commands (Acts 5:29). Since God only allows for polygamy, and does not command it, a law prohibiting polygamy should be upheld.

Are there some instances in which the allowance for polygamy would still apply today? Perhaps…but it is unfathomable that there would be no other possible solution. Due to the “one flesh” aspect of marriage, the need for oneness and harmony in marriage, and the lack of any real need for polygamy, it is our firm belief that polygamy does not honor God and is not His design for marriage.

book:
Bible Answers for Almost All Your Questions
http://www.christianbook.com/Christian/Books/product?event=AFF&p=1011693&item_no=63241

Even the author made a distinction between wife and conubine. I don't think the two can be compared.

The difficulty is that the bible does not specifically rule out plural marriage. Anything the bible does not address becomes one man's opinion vs another.

I've noticed this, and previously thought it was just a fact of life back then and was never allowed. Then as I actually got into reading the old testament, it shocked me how David was not punished for polygamy. It only became an issue with Bathsheba, because of the way it was done...
 
Thanks Diva, but I have come across that article and I found that maybe the explanation limits God, in the sense that he made it so that there were more women than men, and then allowed polygamy to "fix" it. I know this probably isn't the case, but I guess the feminist in me wants to hear it was wrong... somewhere... :wallbash:
 
Man last night I had to call my father in law up about this one! When you start talking about the bible...it get's him going:grin:, he loves these types of conversations...It was hard to hear since he was on route and his cell phone was going in and out...I wish I can get you to talk to him, he'll break it all the way down...trust me you and the bible will be open for business...:yep:
but still reaserching and reading;
....vivmaiko...you're on it girl...

but to add to it...since we can't call or email God and ask...we can only research and speculate why God allowed many things to happen w or w/o < consequence for any given reason...although, whether a sin or not Aviah, God sent his son to the cross, so any sin like...multiple wives....OR husbands are forgiven because of Jesus.

here's what I got online i hth:
(1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? The Bible does not specifically say why God allowed polygamy. The best anyone can do is “informed” speculation. There are a few key factors to consider. First, there has always been more women in the world than men. Current statistics show that approximately 50.5% of the world population are women, with men being 49.5%. Assuming the same percentages in ancient times, and multiplied by millions of people, there would be tens of thousands more women than men. Second, warfare in ancient times was especially brutal, with an incredibly high rate of fatalities. This would have resulted in an even greater percentage of women to men. Third, due to the patriarchal societies, it was nearly impossible for an unmarried woman to provide for herself. Women were often uneducated and untrained. Women relied on their fathers, brothers, and husbands for provision and protection. Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery. Fourth, the significant difference between the number of women and men would have left many, many women in an undesirable (to say the least) situation.

So, it seems that God allowed polygamy to protect and provide for the women who could not find a husband otherwise. A man would take multiple wives and serve as the provider and protector of all of them. While definitely not ideal, living in a polygamist household was far better than the alternatives: prostitution, slavery, starvation, etc. In addition to the protection / provision factor, polygamy enabled a much faster expansion of humanity, fulfilling God’s command to “be fruitful and multiply, fill the earth” (Genesis 9:7). Men are capable of impregnating multiple women in the same time period…causing humanity to grow much faster than if each man was only able to produce one child each year.

(2) How does God view polygamy today? Even while allowing polygamy, the Bible presents monogamy as the plan which conforms most closely to God’s ideal for marriage. The Bible says that God’s original intention was for one man to be married to only one woman, “For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife (not wives); and they shall become one flesh (not multiple fleshes)” (Genesis 2:24). While Genesis 2:24 is describing what marriage is, rather than how many people are involved, the consistent use of the singular should be noted. In Deuteronomy 17:14-20, God says that the kings were not supposed to multiply wives (or horses or gold). While this cannot be interpreted as a command that the kings must be monogamous, it can be understood as declaring the having multiple wives causes problems. This can be clearly seen in the life of Solomon (1 Kings 11:3-4).

In the New Testament, 1 Timothy 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 give “the husband of one wife” in a list of qualifications for spiritual leadership. There is some debate as to what specifically this qualification means. Please read - http://www.gotquestions.org/husband-one-wife.html. The phrase could literally be translated “a one-woman man.” Whether or not this phrase is referring exclusively to polygamy, in no sense can a polygamist be considered a “one-woman man.” While these qualifications are specifically for positions of spiritual leadership, they should apply equally to all Christians. Should not all Christians be “above reproach ... temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, not given to drunkenness, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money” (1 Timothy 3:2-4)? If we are called to be holy (1 Peter 1:16), and if these standards are holy for elders and deacons, then they are holy for all.

Ephesians 5:22-33, speaking of the relationship between husbands and wives, when referring to a husband (singular) always also refers to a wife (singular). “…for the husband is the head of the wife (singular) … He who loves his wife (singular) loves himself. For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife (singular), and the two will become one flesh … each one of you also must love his wife (singular) as he loves himself, and the wife (singular) must respect her husband (singular).” While a somewhat parallel passage, Colossians 3:18-19, refers to husbands and wives in the plural, it is clear that Paul is addressing all the husbands and wives among the Colossian believers, not stating that a husband might have multiple wives. In contrast, Ephesians 5:22-33 is specifically describing the marital relationship. If polygamy is allowable, the entire illustration of Christ’s relationship with His body (the church), and the husband-wife relationship, falls apart.

(3) Why did it change? It is not as much God disallowing something He previously allowed as it is God restoring marriage to His original intent. Even going back to Adam and Eve (not Eves), polygamy was not God’s original intent. God seems to have allowed polygamy to solve a problem, but it was God’s desire for the problem never to have occurred. In most modern societies, there is absolutely no need for polygamy. In most cultures today, women are able to provide for and protect themselves – removing the only “positive” aspect of polygamy. Further, most modern nations outlaw polygamy. According to Romans 13:1-7, we are to obey the laws that the government establishes. The only instance in which disobeying the law is permitted by Scripture is if the law contradicts God’s commands (Acts 5:29). Since God only allows for polygamy, and does not command it, a law prohibiting polygamy should be upheld.

Are there some instances in which the allowance for polygamy would still apply today? Perhaps…but it is unfathomable that there would be no other possible solution. Due to the “one flesh” aspect of marriage, the need for oneness and harmony in marriage, and the lack of any real need for polygamy, it is our firm belief that polygamy does not honor God and is not His design for marriage.

book:
Bible Answers for Almost All Your Questions
http://www.christianbook.com/Christian/Books/product?event=AFF&p=1011693&item_no=63241


One last thing, I know they would be forgiven, but I'm just wondering about the practical implications of having more than one wife when coming to Christ. Even if it was allowed in the old testament, but thanks for your responses!
 
One last thing, I know they would be forgiven, but I'm just wondering about the practical implications of having more than one wife when coming to Christ. Even if it was allowed in the old testament, but thanks for your responses!


I've noticed this, and previously thought it was just a fact of life back then and was never allowed. Then as I actually got into reading the old testament, it shocked me how David was not punished for polygamy. It only became an issue with Bathsheba, because of the way it was done...


understood

I don't think it was common for a woman to have many husbands but because it was widely practiced for men to have wives I think God may have allowed polygamy for many reasons due to living conditions and filling of the earth. I think back then, men practiced equal love between his wives unlike today. but Girllll, only God knows this answer! :drunk: interestingly enough it does make one want to do some research...girl let us know what cha find
 
I've noticed this, and previously thought it was just a fact of life back then and was never allowed. Then as I actually got into reading the old testament, it shocked me how David was not punished for polygamy. It only became an issue with Bathsheba, because of the way it was done...

There are many times it is mentioned that wives were apart of biblical life. I like you have noticed that David was not punished for polygamy, but was punished for his issues with Bathsheba.

I read the other inferences of the singularity of one wife used in scriptures given by the other poster.

My problem is that when Jesus doesn't want you to do something he specifically will in the scripture say "Don't". In regards to plural marriage, there really are not specific words telling us "Don't". ..So what does this mean in the end....I don't know. :ohwell:
 
understood

I don't think it was common for a woman to have many husbands but because it was widely practiced for men to have wives I think God may have allowed polygamy for many reasons due to living conditions and filling of the earth. I think back then, men practiced equal love between his wives unlike today. but Girllll, only God knows this answer! :drunk: interestingly enough it does make one want to do some research...girl let us know what cha find

Solomon loved all 700 wives equally? As well as David and his wives? Really hard to imagine, I'm not sure about that, not to discredit you...


There are many times it is mentioned that wives were apart of biblical life. I like you have noticed that David was not punished for polygamy, but was punished for his issues with Bathsheba.

I read the other inferences of the singularity of one wife used in scriptures given by the other poster.

My problem is that when Jesus doesn't want you to do something he specifically will in the scripture say "Don't". In regards to plural marriage, there really are not specific words telling us "Don't". ..So what does this mean in the end....I don't know. :ohwell:

The search goes on! lol...
 
The bible is very clear on the purpose of marriage.
It is to be a representation of Christ and the church (the ultimate marriage).

Marriage is about two becoming one and this is a very clear theme throughout the bible. How can a man become one with more than "one" wife???
 
The bible is very clear on the purpose of marriage.
It is to be a representation of Christ and the church (the ultimate marriage).

Marriage is about two becoming one and this is a very clear theme throughout the bible. How can a man become one with more than "one" wife???



If you believe a man can love his wives equally, then it can be done. The oneness is created by the woman and man seperately as their own unit.

Not agreeing or disagreeing w/ the concept, I find the topic very interesting.
 
Will some one please answer me why it was ok with God that Solomon was a polygamist and had concubines and wiveS and that God specifically said not to marry women from a specific tribe/group because they would turn his heart from God and Solomon disobeyed and married them anyway and .... well you know the rest.
 
Solomon loved all 700 wives equally? As well as David and his wives? Really hard to imagine, I'm not sure about that, not to discredit you...




The search goes on! lol...

i'm not worried about being discredited..i was stating a mere assumption:look:, maybe even a justification as to why wives. since my opinion is wrong..no problem tho you want facts, soooo as of 1 Kings 11:1-13, briefly, God gave him specific instructions on not to intermarry women from A-Z nations b/c these women will lead him to worship other gods, "Solomon" insisted his "love" and did anyway, the women led his heart to worship their gods. Solomon did all kinds of detestable stuff, like building shrines.....In the end, God took his kingdom...not while Solomon was alive but from his son who would inherit after Solomon's death.


Will some one please answer me why it was ok with God that Solomon was a polygamist and had concubines and wiveS and that God specifically said not to marry women from a specific tribe/group because they would turn his heart from God and Solomon disobeyed and married them anyway and .... well you know the rest.
read 1Kings 9:6-9 11:1-2;9-13
 
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Will some one please answer me why it was ok with God that Solomon was a polygamist and had concubines and wiveS and that God specifically said not to marry women from a specific tribe/group because they would turn his heart from God and Solomon disobeyed and married them anyway and .... well you know the rest.

It was not okay with God that Solomon had so many wives. (Deuteronomy 17:17) In fact, it was the strange women (wives) that turned his heart away from The Lord. (1 Kings 11)
 
It was not okay with God that Solomon had so many wives. (Deuteronomy 17:17) In fact, it was the strange women (wives) that turned his heart away from The Lord. (1 Kings 11)

I know that (the bold) but evidently it was ok w/ God since His only restriction was not marrying the "strange" ones. The rest were ok.
 
i'm not worried about being discredited..i was stating a mere assumption:look:, maybe even a justification as to why wives. since my opinion is wrong..no problem tho you want facts, soooo as of 1 Kings 11:1-13, briefly, God gave him specific instructions on not to intermarry women from A-Z nations b/c these women will lead him to worship other gods, "Solomon" insisted his "love" and did anyway, the women led his heart to worship their gods. Solomon did all kinds of detestable stuff, like building shrines.....In the end, God took his kingdom...not while Solomon was alive but from his son who would inherit after Solomon's death.



read 1Kings 9:6-9 11:1-2;9-13

I'm not saying you're wrong. It's an open discussion sis. I just want to know how he loved all of them equally, or if its really possible...
 
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