seraphim712
Well-Known Member
I don't know if I'm confusing myself or if others are misinterpreting the scriptures through different versions of the bible, but I was almost always certain that if the act of rape was committed against a woman, the man would undeniably be put to death, no questions asked.
However, I notice when I type in Duet 22, the NIV always is the first version to come up in the search engine and by reading the passage, it only qualifies if the woman was a betrothed virgin, however if it were a woman who was a virgin that wasn't betrothed and was defiled by a man, then that man would have to pay fifty shekels of silver to the father and marry the victim and he's not allowed to divorce her for as long as he lives.... to me this sounds horrible and traumatizing for the victim to have to live with her rapist.
I looked up the KJV online and it says the same exact thing, just in 'Old English' format.
Again I don't know if I'm making up things in my head, but I grew up on the KJV of the Bible, I used to read from a family bible that was very old, and I swore that this chapter indicated that if the woman was forcibly violated whether if she were married or not, then the culprit would die.
So many people are bringing up this scripture among others on FB in my feed to 'prove' a point that the Bible is 'barbaric' and 'evil'; I'm always the type to seek out questions and do my best to research things, when I ask ministers about it, they usually go around my question and don't answer me directly.
Can someone help me out with this please? I know all versions of the bible we know of today originate from Hebrew, therefore does the Hebrew bible say something completely different and is being misinterpreted when translated to different languages?
However, I notice when I type in Duet 22, the NIV always is the first version to come up in the search engine and by reading the passage, it only qualifies if the woman was a betrothed virgin, however if it were a woman who was a virgin that wasn't betrothed and was defiled by a man, then that man would have to pay fifty shekels of silver to the father and marry the victim and he's not allowed to divorce her for as long as he lives.... to me this sounds horrible and traumatizing for the victim to have to live with her rapist.
I looked up the KJV online and it says the same exact thing, just in 'Old English' format.
Again I don't know if I'm making up things in my head, but I grew up on the KJV of the Bible, I used to read from a family bible that was very old, and I swore that this chapter indicated that if the woman was forcibly violated whether if she were married or not, then the culprit would die.
So many people are bringing up this scripture among others on FB in my feed to 'prove' a point that the Bible is 'barbaric' and 'evil'; I'm always the type to seek out questions and do my best to research things, when I ask ministers about it, they usually go around my question and don't answer me directly.
Can someone help me out with this please? I know all versions of the bible we know of today originate from Hebrew, therefore does the Hebrew bible say something completely different and is being misinterpreted when translated to different languages?